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Welcome to your MOCK Test 1
QUESTION 1 A 34- years –old primigravid woman is referred to the antenatal clinic at 32 weeks of gestation following an ultrasound scan which showed moderate polyhydramnios with the amniotic fluid index (AFI) of 32 .There were no structural abnormalities seen and the polyhydramnios resolves by 38 weeks .What is the risk of fetal aneuploidy in this clinical situation ?
A – 1%
B – 3%
C – 5%
D – 7%
E – 9%
Question 2: A 27 – year – old nulliparous woman has a dating at 11 weeks of gestation . the fetal crown – rump length corresponding to 9 weeks of gestation and there is no fetal heartbeat . she chooses medical , rather than surgical , management of her miscarriage . which treatment options is the most appropriate ?
A – Gemeprost 1 mg administration vaginally
B – Mifepristone oral 200 mg followed 48 hours after by misoprostol 200 mgicrograms vaginally 6 hours
C – Misoprostol 600 micrograms administered vaginally
D – Misoprostol 800 microgram administered orally
E – Misoprostol 800 microgram stat administered vaginally
Question 3 " A 34 – year – old woman complains of a sensation of incomplete emptying after passing urine . it is now three months after insertion of a tension – free vaginal tape (TVT) to treat her stress incontinence . outpatient uroflowmetry reports an average flow rate of 15 ml / s , voided volume 350 ml and a residual urine volume of 80 ml . you are asked to review the patient to explain the result . which of the following residual volume of urine would be regarded as clinically significant in this case ?
A – 10 ml
B - 25 ml
C – 50 ml
D – 75 ml
E – 100 ml
Question 4: A 26-year-old woman is seen complaining of regular contractions (one every 10 minutes) at 30 + 3 weeks of gestation. A speculum examination is performed and the cervix appears long but slightly dilated. There is no history of ruptured membranes. What investigation should be considered first in this situation?
A. Fetal fibronectin
B. Full blood count (FBC) and C-reactive protein (CRP)
C. No test required – treat as preterm labour
D. Test for insulin-like growth factor-binding protein-1 (IGFBP-1) or placental α-microglobulin-1 (PAMG-1)
E. Transvaginal ultrasound
Question 5: A 29-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with a 24-hour history of symptoms suggestive of preterm prelabour rupture of membranes (PPROM). Which initial test should be performed to confirm a diagnosis of PPROM?
A. Nitrazine test
B. Speculum examination of the vagina
C. Test vaginal fluid for insulin-like growth factor-binding protein-1 (IGFBP-1)
D. Test vaginal fluid for placental α-microglobulin-1 (PAMG-1)
E. Ultrasound scan for assessment of amniotic fluid volume
6- You are asked to repair a vaginal tear following a normal delivery. The mother’s weight is 60 kg. She is otherwise well with no allergies. What is the maximum dose of lidocaine 1% without epinephrine that you can use for perineal infiltration?
A. 8 ml (80 mg)
B. 12 ml (120 mg)
C. 18 ml (180 mg)
D. 24 ml (240 mg)
E. 36 ml (360 mg)
7- A primigravida who is a Type 1 diabetic is admitted in labour at 37 + 2 weeks gestation. The midwife has commenced sliding scale insulin infusion. Between which values should the capillary blood glucose be maintained during labour?
A- 3 and 8mmol/l
B. 3.5 and 5.9mmol/l
C. 4 and 7mmol/l
D. 5 and 9mmol/l
E. 6 and 8mmol/l
8- What type of headache is associated with a Dural puncture?
A. Fronto–occipital location
B. Occipital location
C. Temporal location
D. Temporal with non-focal neurology
E. Thunderclap
9- What is the incidence of cord prolapse with breech presentation?
A. 0.1%
B. 0.2%
C. 0.6%
D. 1%
E. 2%
10- A 32-year-old woman is in labour in her second pregnancy. Her previous delivery was by caesarean section. What is the most consistent indicator of uterine rupture for this woman?
A. Abnormal CTG
B. Acute onset of scar tenderness
C. Haematuria
D. Loss of station of the presenting part
E. Severe abdominal pain
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